RELIABLE SYMANTEC 250-580 EXAM CRAM & MOST 250-580 RELIABLE QUESTIONS

Reliable Symantec 250-580 Exam Cram & Most 250-580 Reliable Questions

Reliable Symantec 250-580 Exam Cram & Most 250-580 Reliable Questions

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Tags: Reliable 250-580 Exam Cram, Most 250-580 Reliable Questions, Latest 250-580 Test Blueprint, Online 250-580 Test, Reliable 250-580 Test Labs

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The Symantec 250-580 exam is a 90-minute, multiple-choice exam that requires the candidate to answer 70 questions. 250-580 exam is administered by Pearson VUE, a global leader in computer-based testing. 250-580 Exam is available in English and Japanese and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center around the world.

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Most 250-580 Reliable Questions - Latest 250-580 Test Blueprint

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Symantec Endpoint Security Complete - Administration R2 Sample Questions (Q45-Q50):

NEW QUESTION # 45
Which security control performs a cloud lookup on files downloaded during the Initial Access phase?

  • A. Intrusion Prevention
  • B. Exploit Protection
  • C. Auto-Protect
  • D. Antimalware

Answer: C

Explanation:
Auto-Protectin Symantec Endpoint Security performscloud lookups on filesdownloaded during theInitial Access phase. This feature checks files against a cloud-based reputation database, enhancing detection capabilities for newly introduced files on the system.
* Function of Auto-Protect:
* Auto-Protect immediately scans files as they are accessed or downloaded, leveraging Symantec's cloud reputation to quickly determine the risk level of a file.
* This real-time scanning and cloud lookup are essential during the Initial Access phase to prevent threats from executing.
* Why Other Options Are Incorrect:
* Exploit Protection(Option A) focuses on protecting against application and system vulnerabilities, not file lookups.
* Intrusion Prevention(Option C) monitors network-based threats, andAntimalware(Option D) generally focuses on known malware patterns rather than immediate cloud-based lookups.
References: Auto-Protect is designed for proactive file scanning with cloud lookups to prevent Initial Access threats.


NEW QUESTION # 46
In what order should an administrator configure the integration between SEDR and Symantec Endpoint Protection in order to maximize their benefits?

  • A. ECC, Synapse, then Insight Proxy
  • B. Insight Proxy, Synapse, then ECC
  • C. ECC, Insight Proxy, then Synapse
  • D. Synapse, ECC, then Insight Proxy

Answer: A

Explanation:
To integrateSymantec Endpoint Detection and Response (SEDR)withSymantec Endpoint Protection (SEP)effectively, the recommended configuration order isECC, Synapse, then Insight Proxy.
* Order of Configuration:
* ECC (Endpoint Communication Channel): This establishes the communication layer for SEDR and SEP integration, which is foundational for data exchange.
* Synapse: This integration uses data from ECC to correlate threat intelligence and provide context to detected threats.
* Insight Proxy: Configured last, Insight Proxy adds cloud-based file reputation lookups, enhancing detection capabilities with reputation scoring.
* Why This Order is Effective:
* Each component builds on the previous one, maximizing the value of integration by ensuring that foundational communication (ECC) is established before adding Synapse correlation and Insight Proxy reputation data.
References: Configuring ECC, Synapse, and Insight Proxy in this order is considered best practice for optimizing integration benefits between SEDR and SEP.


NEW QUESTION # 47
Why is it important for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to the SEDR file store or create an image of the infected system during the Recovery phase?

  • A. To test the effectiveness of the current assigned policy settings in the Symantec Endpoint ProtectionManager (SEPM)
  • B. To have a copy of the file for policy enforcement
  • C. To document and preserve any pieces of evidence associated with the incident
  • D. To create custom IPS signatures

Answer: C

Explanation:
During theRecovery phaseof an incident response, it is critical for an Incident Responder to copy malicious files to theSEDR file storeor create an image of the infected system. This action preserves evidence associated with the incident, allowing for thorough investigation and analysis. By securing a copy of the malicious files or system state, responders maintain a record of the incident that can be analyzed for root cause assessment, used for potential legal proceedings, or retained for post-incident review. Documenting and preserving evidence ensures that key information is available for future reference or audits.


NEW QUESTION # 48
The SES Intrusion Prevention System has blocked an intruder's attempt to establish an IRC connection inside the firewall. Which Advanced Firewall Protection setting should an administrator enable to prevent the intruder's system from communicating with the network after the IPS detection?

  • A. Automatically block an attacker's IP address
  • B. Enable denial of service detection
  • C. Block all traffic until the firewall starts and after the firewall stops
  • D. Enable port scan detection

Answer: A

Explanation:
To enhance security and prevent further attempts from the intruder after the Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) has detected and blocked an attack, the administrator should enable the setting toAutomatically block an attacker's IP address. Here's why this setting is critical:
* Immediate Action Against Threats: By automatically blocking the IP address of the detected attacker, the firewall can prevent any further communication attempts from that address. This helps to mitigate the risk of subsequent attacks or reconnections.
* Proactive Defense Mechanism: Enabling this feature serves as a proactive defense strategy, minimizing the chances of successful future intrusions by making it harder for the attacker to re- establish a connection to the network.
* Reduction of Administrative Overhead: Automating this response allows the security team to focus on investigating and remediating the incident rather than manually tracking and blocking malicious IP addresses, thus optimizing incident response workflows.
* Layered Security Approach: This setting complements other security measures, such as intrusion detection and port scan detection, creating a layered security approach that enhances overall network security.
Enabling automatic blocking of an attacker's IP address directly addresses the immediate risk posed by the detected intrusion and reinforces the organization's defense posture against future threats.


NEW QUESTION # 49
An administrator is investigating a possible threat that occurs during the Windows startup. A file is observed that is NOT digitally signed by Microsoft. Which Anti-malware feature should the administrator enable to scan this file for threats?

  • A. Enable Microsoft ELAM
  • B. Enable Early Launch Antimalware
  • C. Enable Auto-Protect
  • D. Enable Behavioral Analysis

Answer: B

Explanation:
Early Launch Antimalware (ELAM)is a feature that is designed to provideanti-malware protection during the early stages of Windows startup. When ELAM is enabled, it scans drivers and files that load during startup, especially those not digitally signed by trusted sources like Microsoft.
* How ELAM Works:
* ELAM loads before other drivers at startup and scans critical files and drivers, identifying potential malware that may attempt to execute before other security layers are fully operational.
* Since the file observed is not digitally signed by Microsoft, ELAM would detect and analyze it at boot, preventing possible threats from initializing.
* Advantages of ELAM:
* It provides proactive defense against rootkits and other threats that may try to gain persistence on the system by loading during the Windows boot process.
* Why Other Options Are Less Suitable:
* Auto-ProtectandBehavioral Analysisare effective but operate after the system has booted.
* Microsoft ELAMis already enabled by default in Windows but does not provide the same customizability as SEP's ELAM feature.
References: Enabling ELAM is a key best practice for SEP to secure the earliest startup stages against unsigned or suspicious files.


NEW QUESTION # 50
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